4.4.1 Classical Spin#

Prompts

  • Explain the decomposition of a spinning top’s angular momentum into orbital and spin parts. How do the moments of inertia determine the motion?

  • Walk me through Larmor precession of a magnetic dipole in a uniform field. What determines the precession frequency?

  • What is the gyromagnetic ratio, and why does the classical prediction \(g=1\) differ from the electron’s \(g\approx 2\)?

  • Orbital angular momentum on a sphere is always integer-valued. Why? What experimental evidence shows that half-integer angular momentum exists?

Lecture Notes#

Overview#

The classical spinning top provides the physical intuition for angular momentum: a rigid body possesses both orbital angular momentum \(\boldsymbol{L} = \boldsymbol{r} \times \boldsymbol{p}\) from translational motion and spin angular momentum \(\boldsymbol{S}\) from rotation about its own axis. A spinning charge generates a magnetic dipole, coupling angular momentum to electromagnetic fields through the gyromagnetic ratio. Precession in a magnetic field — Larmor precession — is the classical prototype for quantum spin dynamics. Yet a deep puzzle remains: orbital angular momentum on a sphere is always integer-valued, while experiments (Stern-Gerlach) reveal half-integer angular momentum. Where does spin-1/2 come from? The answer, developed in §4.4.2–4.4.3, lies in gauge topology.

The Classical Spinning Top#

A rigid body rotating about its center of mass has angular momentum:

\[ \boldsymbol{L} = I \boldsymbol{\omega} \]

where \(I\) is the moment of inertia tensor and \(\boldsymbol{\omega}\) is the angular velocity. For a symmetric top with symmetry axis \(\hat{\boldsymbol{n}}\), the angular momentum decomposes into two parts:

  • Orbital part \(\boldsymbol{L}_\text{orb} = \boldsymbol{r} \times \boldsymbol{p}\): angular momentum from the center-of-mass motion

  • Spin part \(\boldsymbol{S}\): angular momentum from rotation about the body’s own axis

The total angular momentum is \(\boldsymbol{J} = \boldsymbol{L}_\text{orb} + \boldsymbol{S}\).

Orbital vs Spin Angular Momentum

Orbital angular momentum \(\boldsymbol{L} = \boldsymbol{r} \times \boldsymbol{p}\) arises from motion through space. It depends on the choice of origin.

Spin angular momentum \(\boldsymbol{S}\) is intrinsic rotation about the body’s own axis. It is independent of the choice of origin.

Both obey the same dynamical equation: \(\mathrm{d}\boldsymbol{J}/\mathrm{d}t = \boldsymbol{\tau}\), where \(\boldsymbol{\tau}\) is the applied torque.

For a symmetric top with moment of inertia \(I_\parallel\) about the symmetry axis and \(I_\perp\) about any transverse axis, the kinetic energy is:

\[ T = \frac{1}{2} I_\perp \omega_\perp^2 + \frac{1}{2} I_\parallel \omega_\parallel^2 \]

The spin component \(S = I_\parallel \omega_\parallel\) along the symmetry axis is conserved when no torque acts along that axis.

Precession in a Torque Field#

When a torque \(\boldsymbol{\tau}\) acts on a spinning body, the angular momentum evolves as:

\[ \frac{\mathrm{d}\boldsymbol{L}}{\mathrm{d}t} = \boldsymbol{\tau} \]

For a magnetic dipole \(\boldsymbol{\mu}\) in a uniform field \(\boldsymbol{B}\), the torque is \(\boldsymbol{\tau} = \boldsymbol{\mu} \times \boldsymbol{B}\). If the magnetic moment is proportional to the angular momentum, \(\boldsymbol{\mu} = \gamma \boldsymbol{L}\), then:

(73)#\[ \frac{\mathrm{d}\boldsymbol{L}}{\mathrm{d}t} = \gamma \boldsymbol{L} \times \boldsymbol{B} \]

This equation describes precession: the angular momentum vector traces a cone around \(\boldsymbol{B}\) at a constant angle \(\theta\), with angular frequency:

(74)#\[ \omega_L = -\gamma B \]

This is the Larmor frequency. The magnitude \(|\boldsymbol{L}|\) and the component \(L_z = \boldsymbol{L} \cdot \hat{\boldsymbol{B}}\) are both conserved — only the transverse components rotate.

Larmor Precession

A magnetic dipole with \(\boldsymbol{\mu} = \gamma \boldsymbol{L}\) in a field \(\boldsymbol{B} = B \hat{\boldsymbol{z}}\) precesses at the Larmor frequency \(\omega_L = -\gamma B\). The equation of motion,

\[ \frac{\mathrm{d}\boldsymbol{L}}{\mathrm{d}t} = \gamma \boldsymbol{L} \times \boldsymbol{B} \]

is formally identical to the Lorentz force on a charged particle, with \(\boldsymbol{L}\) playing the role of velocity and \(\boldsymbol{B}\) playing the role of the magnetic field.

The Gyromagnetic Ratio#

A spinning charged body generates a magnetic dipole moment. For a classical charge distribution with charge-to-mass ratio \(q/m\) rotating rigidly:

\[ \boldsymbol{\mu} = \frac{q}{2m} \boldsymbol{L} \]

The proportionality constant \(\gamma = q/(2m)\) is the gyromagnetic ratio. We define the dimensionless \(g\)-factor by:

(75)#\[ \boldsymbol{\mu} = g \frac{q}{2m} \boldsymbol{S} \]

Classical vs Quantum \(g\)-factor

System

\(g\)-factor

Classical orbital motion

\(g = 1\)

Electron spin

\(g \approx 2.002\) (Dirac equation gives exactly 2; QED corrections add 0.002)

Proton spin

\(g \approx 5.586\) (anomalous, due to internal quark structure)

Neutron spin

\(g \approx -3.826\) (nonzero despite zero charge — reveals internal structure)

The electron’s \(g \approx 2\) cannot be explained classically and was one of the triumphs of the Dirac equation.

For an electron with charge \(-e\) and spin \(\boldsymbol{S}\):

\[ \boldsymbol{\mu}_e = -g_e \frac{e}{2m_e} \boldsymbol{S} = -g_e \mu_B \frac{\boldsymbol{S}}{\hbar} \]

where \(\mu_B = e\hbar/(2m_e)\) is the Bohr magneton.

The Puzzle: Integer vs Half-Integer Angular Momentum#

In quantum mechanics, orbital angular momentum \(\hat{\boldsymbol{L}} = \hat{\boldsymbol{r}} \times \hat{\boldsymbol{p}}\) acts on wavefunctions \(\psi(\theta, \phi)\) on the unit sphere. The eigenvalue problem:

\[ \hat{L}^2 Y_l^m = \hbar^2 l(l+1) Y_l^m, \quad \hat{L}_z Y_l^m = \hbar m \, Y_l^m \]

requires single-valued wavefunctions on the sphere: \(\psi(\theta, \phi + 2\pi) = \psi(\theta, \phi)\). This forces \(m \in \mathbb{Z}\), and consequently:

\[ l = 0, 1, 2, \ldots \quad \text{(integers only)} \]

Orbital Angular Momentum Is Always Integer

Because wavefunctions must be single-valued on the sphere \(S^2\), orbital angular momentum quantum numbers are restricted to non-negative integers. The eigenfunctions are the spherical harmonics \(Y_l^m(\theta, \phi)\).

Yet the Stern-Gerlach experiment (1922) showed that silver atoms split into two beams in an inhomogeneous magnetic field — corresponding to \(m = \pm 1/2\). This half-integer angular momentum cannot arise from any orbital motion of a particle on a sphere.

The Stern-Gerlach Puzzle

The algebra \([\hat{J}_i, \hat{J}_j] = \mathrm{i}\hbar \epsilon_{ijk} \hat{J}_k\) allows both integer and half-integer representations (\(j = 0, 1/2, 1, 3/2, \ldots\)). But orbital angular momentum \(\hat{\boldsymbol{L}} = \hat{\boldsymbol{r}} \times \hat{\boldsymbol{p}}\) only produces integer \(l\), because wavefunctions on \(S^2\) must be single-valued.

Half-integer spin was introduced as an additional postulate (Uhlenbeck and Goudsmit, 1925). But is it truly independent, or does it have a deeper origin?

The resolution comes from gauge topology: when a particle moves on a sphere threaded by a magnetic monopole (§4.4.2), the single-valuedness condition is modified. The monopole’s gauge field shifts the minimum angular momentum to \(l_\text{min} = |s|\), where \(s = qg/(2\hbar c)\) is the monopole quantum number. For \(s = 1/2\), the lowest orbital states are a doublet with \(l = 1/2\) — precisely spin-1/2. Thus half-integer angular momentum emerges from topology, not as an independent axiom.

Summary#

  • A classical spinning top has orbital angular momentum \(\boldsymbol{L} = \boldsymbol{r} \times \boldsymbol{p}\) and spin angular momentum \(\boldsymbol{S}\) from body rotation

  • A magnetic dipole in a field precesses at the Larmor frequency \(\omega_L = \gamma B\), with the precession equation formally identical to the Lorentz force

  • The gyromagnetic ratio \(g\) relates magnetic moment to angular momentum; \(g = 1\) classically, \(g \approx 2\) for the electron (a relativistic quantum effect)

  • Orbital angular momentum on a sphere is restricted to integers by single-valuedness of wavefunctions

  • Half-integer angular momentum (spin-1/2) is observed experimentally but cannot arise from orbital motion — its origin lies in gauge topology (§4.4.2–4.4.3)

Homework#

1. A symmetric top has moments of inertia \(I_\parallel\) about its symmetry axis and \(I_\perp\) about any transverse axis. The top spins with angular velocity \(\omega_\parallel\) about its axis and precesses with angular velocity \(\omega_\perp\) about the vertical. Write the total angular momentum \(\boldsymbol{L}\) in terms of these quantities. Show that the kinetic energy is \(T = \frac{1}{2}I_\parallel \omega_\parallel^2 + \frac{1}{2}I_\perp \omega_\perp^2\).

2. A magnetic dipole \(\boldsymbol{\mu} = \gamma \boldsymbol{L}\) is placed in a uniform field \(\boldsymbol{B} = B\hat{\boldsymbol{z}}\). Starting from \(\mathrm{d}\boldsymbol{L}/\mathrm{d}t = \gamma \boldsymbol{L} \times \boldsymbol{B}\), show that \(L_z\) and \(|\boldsymbol{L}|\) are both conserved, while \(L_x(t)\) and \(L_y(t)\) oscillate at the Larmor frequency \(\omega_L = \gamma B\).

3. For a classical circular current loop of radius \(R\) carrying current \(I\), the magnetic moment is \(\mu = I \pi R^2\). If the current is due to a particle of charge \(q\) and mass \(m\) moving at speed \(v\), show that \(\boldsymbol{\mu} = (q/2m)\boldsymbol{L}\), confirming \(g = 1\) for classical orbital motion.

4. The electron’s \(g\)-factor is \(g_e \approx 2.002\). Compute the Larmor precession frequency \(\omega_L = g_e e B/(2m_e)\) for an electron in a \(B = 1\,\text{T}\) field. Express the result in GHz. Compare to the classical prediction with \(g = 1\).

5. The neutron has zero electric charge but a nonzero magnetic moment \(\mu_n = g_n \mu_N / 2\) with \(g_n \approx -3.826\) and \(\mu_N = e\hbar/(2m_p)\) the nuclear magneton. Explain qualitatively why a neutral particle can have a magnetic moment. What does the sign of \(g_n\) tell you about the neutron’s internal charge distribution?

6. Show that single-valuedness of wavefunctions on the sphere, \(\psi(\theta, \phi + 2\pi) = \psi(\theta, \phi)\), requires the magnetic quantum number \(m\) to be an integer. Conclude that orbital angular momentum \(l\) must also be a non-negative integer.

7. The Stern-Gerlach experiment passes silver atoms through an inhomogeneous magnetic field and observes two spots on the detector. If the splitting is due to angular momentum \(j\), the number of spots is \(2j + 1\). What value of \(j\) does two spots imply? Why is this incompatible with orbital angular momentum?

8. The angular momentum algebra \([\hat{J}_i, \hat{J}_j] = \mathrm{i}\hbar\epsilon_{ijk}\hat{J}_k\) allows representations with \(j = 0, 1/2, 1, 3/2, \ldots\). For each \(j\), the dimension of the representation is \(2j+1\). List the dimensions for \(j = 0, 1/2, 1, 3/2, 2\). Which of these can arise from orbital angular momentum, and which require spin?

9. A spin-1/2 particle in a magnetic field \(\boldsymbol{B} = B\hat{\boldsymbol{z}}\) has Hamiltonian \(\hat{H} = -\gamma B \hat{S}_z\). Find the energy eigenvalues and the time evolution of a general state \(\vert\psi(0)\rangle = \alpha\vert\uparrow\rangle + \beta\vert\downarrow\rangle\). Show that \(\langle \hat{S}_x \rangle(t)\) and \(\langle \hat{S}_y \rangle(t)\) precess at the Larmor frequency while \(\langle \hat{S}_z \rangle\) is constant — the quantum analogue of classical Larmor precession.

10. The resolution of the half-integer puzzle involves a magnetic monopole (§4.4.2–4.4.3). Preview the argument: if a particle moves on a sphere threaded by monopole flux, the single-valuedness condition is modified to \(\psi(\phi + 2\pi) = \mathrm{e}^{2\pi \mathrm{i} s}\psi(\phi)\) where \(s = qg/(2\hbar c)\). For \(s = 1/2\), what is the minimum allowed angular momentum quantum number? How many states does this lowest multiplet contain?